![when applying the Laplace transform why is the -pi/4 in cos(t-pi/4) ignored ? Thank you. : r/askmath when applying the Laplace transform why is the -pi/4 in cos(t-pi/4) ignored ? Thank you. : r/askmath](https://preview.redd.it/g603dvpfv1441.png?auto=webp&s=1f290ebfd618541575317412cd088df479138070)
when applying the Laplace transform why is the -pi/4 in cos(t-pi/4) ignored ? Thank you. : r/askmath
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![classical electrodynamics - Why divergence of Electric field is defined differenly as $\nabla \cdot \mathbf {E} ={\frac {4\pi \rho}{\varepsilon}}$ in f dependence of $\sigma$? - Physics Stack Exchange classical electrodynamics - Why divergence of Electric field is defined differenly as $\nabla \cdot \mathbf {E} ={\frac {4\pi \rho}{\varepsilon}}$ in f dependence of $\sigma$? - Physics Stack Exchange](https://i.stack.imgur.com/BANRZ.png)